UGC NET Paper I –Dec 2015

UGC NET Previous Years Solved Papers

Paper - I  Dec 2015

1.  Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the :

(1) Family

(2) Society

(3) Teacher

(4) State

Ans: (3)

 

2.  What are the characteristics of the Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation ?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (4)

 

3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher ?

(a) Full time active involvement in the institutional management

(b) Setting examples

(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d) Acknowledging mistakes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (2)

 

4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple – choice type questions ?

(1) They are more objective than true-false type questions.

(2) They are less objective than essay type questions.

(3) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.

(4) They are more subjective than true-false type questions

Ans: (1)

 

5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled :

(1) International Commission on Education Report

(2) Millennium Development Report

(3) Learning : The Treasure Within

(4) World Declaration on Education for all

Ans: (3)

 

6. What are required for good teaching ?

(a) Diagnosis

(b) Remedy

(c) Direction

(d) Feedback

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

Ans: (1)

 

7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?

(1) It recognizes knowledge as power.

(2) It emphasises on people as experts.

(3) It is a collective process of enquiry.

(4) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.

Ans: (4)

 

8. Which of the following statements is true in context of the testing of a hypothesis?

(1) It is only the alternative hypothesis, that can be tested.

(2) It is only the null hypothesis, that can be tested.

(3) Both, the alternative and the null hypothesis can be tested.

(4) Both, the alternative and the null hypothesis cannot be tested.

Ans: (2)

 

9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?

(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays

(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)

(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals

(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (2)

 

10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.

(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.

(c) It involves large groups of individuals.

(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (b) and (c)

(2) (b) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Ans: (4)

 

11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the study?

(1) Rating scale

(2) Interview

(3) Questionnaire

(4) Schedule

Ans: (3)

 

12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for :

(1) Thesis format

(2) Copyright

(3) Patenting policy

(4) Data sharing policies

Ans: (1)

 

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 – 17.   

               I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card – which is a horrer unto itself, especially as the keeper of the big card was learning over me at the time. Suddenly i was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write : “Good luck, best, Joel”.

             It was then that I realised, to my horror, that i had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

               A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to 19 years – old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have letter paper at home. And a quarter has never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on an exam paper.

             Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

             “Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching, painting or photography.”

Answer the following questions :

13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?

(1) A state of confusion

(2) A state of pleasure

(3) A state of anxiety

(4) A state of pain

Ans: (1)

 

14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?

(1) Handwriting

(2) Photography

(3) Sketching

(4) Reading

Ans: (4)

 

15. The entire existence of the author revolves round:

(a) Computer

(b) Mobil phone

(c) Typewriter

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (b) only

(2) (a) and (b) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c)

(4) (b) and (c) only

Ans: (2)

 

16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?

(1) 800

(2) 560

(3) 500

(4) 100

Ans: (4)

 

17. What is the main concern of the author?

(1) That the teens use social networks for communication.

(2) That the teens use mobile phones.

(3) That the teens use computer.

(4) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

Ans: (4)

 

18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are :

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.

(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.

(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.

(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below :

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (c) only

(4) (a) only

Ans: (3)

 

19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as :

(1) Systemisation

(2) Problem – orientation

(3) Idea protocol

(4) Mind mapping

Ans: (4)

 

20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as :

(1) Physical language

(2) Personal language

(3) Para language

(4) Delivery language

Ans: (3)

 

21. Every type communication is affected by its :

(1) Reception

(2) Transmission

(3) Non-regulation

(4) Context

Ans: (4)

 

22. Attitudes, action and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as :

(1) Verbal

(2) Non-verbal

(3) Impersonal

(4) Irrational

Ans: (2)

 

23. Most often, the teacher – student communication is :

(1) Spurious

(2) Critical

(3) Utilitarian

(4) Confrontational

Ans: (3)

 

24. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by :

(1) The use of hyperbole

(2) The change of voice level

(3) The use of abstract concepts

(4) Eye contact

Ans: (4)

 

25. The next term in the series

2,    5,    10,    17,    26,    37,        ?   _

is :

(1) 50

(2) 57

(3) 62

(4) 72

Ans: (1)

 

26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of \frac{1}{3}/ugc-net-previous-year-solved-papers-paper-1-dec-2015rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:

(1) 80

(2) 76

(3) 74

(4) 72

Ans: (4)

 

27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction. He turned and travelled 12 km towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:

(1) 20 km

(2) 14 km

(3) 12 km

(4) 10 km

Ans: (4)

 

28. The next term in the series :

B2E,     D5H,     F12K,     H27N,     ____?____

is :

(1) J56I

(2) I62Q

(3) Q62J

(4) J58Q

Ans: (4)

 

29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were present. The number of females present in the party is :

(1) 12

(2) 14

(3) 18

(4) 24

Ans: (2)

 

30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as :

(1) Son

(2) Brother

(3) Uncle

(4) Father

Ans: (3)

 

31. Consider the argument given below :

‘Pre – employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a testing.’

What type of argument it is?

(1) Deductive

(2) Analogical

(3) Psychological

(4) Biological

Ans: (2)

 

32. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are those propositions? Select the correct code.

Propositions:

(a) Some priests are cunning.

(b) No priest is cunning.

(c) All priests are cunning.

(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes :

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a) and (d)

Ans: (4)

 

33. A cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits inference is called:

(1) An inference

(2) An argument

(3) An explanation

(4) A valid argument

Ans: (2)

 

34. Consider the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the correct code given below:

(A) : No man is perfect.

(R) : Some men are not perfect.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Ans: (1)

 

35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

(1) Lexical

(2) Precising

(3) Stipulative

(4) Persuasive

Ans: (3)

 

36. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/ propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(1) All men are honest

(2) Some men are honest

(3) Some men are not honest

(4) No honest person is man

Ans: (2)

 

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.

 Year

 Population (million)

Electrical Power Production (GW)*

1951

20

10

1961

21

20

1971

24

25

1981

27

40

1991

30

50

2001

32

80

2011

35

100

   

*1 GW = 1000 million watt

Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 37 to 42.

37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?

(1) 1961-71

(2) 1971-1981

(3) 1991-2001

(4) 2001-20011

Ans: (1)

 

38. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

(1) ~12.21%

(2) ~9.82%

(3) ~6.73%

(4) ~5%

Ans: (2)

 

39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?

(1) 40.34 million

(2) 38.49 million

(3) 37.28 million

(4) 36.62 million

Ans: (2)

 

40. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?

(1) 100 W

(2) 200 W

(3) 400 W

(4) 500 W

Ans: (4)

 

41. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?

(1) 1981-1991

(2) 1991-2001

(3) 2001-2011

(4) 1971-1981

Ans: (3)

 

42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 to 2011?

(1) 100%

(2) 300%

(3) 600%

(4) 900%

Ans: (4)

 

43. NMEICT stands for:

(1) National Mission on Education through ICT

(2) National Mission on E-governance through ICT

(3) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT

(4) National Mission on E- learning through ICT

Ans: (1)

 

44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?

(a) WhatsApp

(b) Google Talk

(c) Viber

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (a) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (4)

 

45. In a Computer a byte generally consists of :

(1) 4 bits

(2) 8 bits

(3) 16 bits

(4) 10 bits

Ans: (2)

 

46. Which of the following is not an input device?

(1) Microphone

(2) Keyboard

(3) Joystick

(4) Monitor

Ans: (4)

 

47. Which of the following is an open source software?

(1) MS Word

(2) Windows

(3) Mozilla Firefox

(4) Acrobat Reader

Ans: (3)

 

48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?

(1) Mail join

(2) Mail copy

(3) Mail insert

(4) Mail merge

Ans: (4)

 

49. Inside rural homes, the source/ sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:

(a) Unvented gas stoves

(b) Wood stoves

(c) Kerosene heaters

Choose the correct code:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only

(3) (b) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Ans: (4)

 

50. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?

(1) Pesticides

(2) Mercury

(3) Lead

(4) Ozone

Ans: (1)

 

51. Assertion (A) : People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environment degradation.

Reason (R) : The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Ans: (1)

 

52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?

(1) Wildfire

(2) Lightning

(3) Landslide

(4) Chemical contamination

Ans: (4)

 

53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year 2030 to :

(1) 175 GW

(2) 200 GW

(3) 250 GW

(4) 350 GW

Ans: (4)

 

54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWH/ year), identify the correct sequence.

(1) Brazil > Russia > China > India

(2) Russia > China > India > Brazil

(3) Russia > China > Brazil > India

(4) China > Russia > Brazil > India

Ans: (3)

 

55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.

(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.

(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b) and (d)

Ans: (2)

 

56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational Institutions is constitutionally prohibited are :

(a) Religion

(b) Sex

(c) Place of birth

(d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (2)

 

57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?

(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.

(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.

(c) First – past – the post electoral system is followed.

(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Ans: (1)

 

58. Public order as an item in the Constitution figures in:

(1) The Union List

(2) The State List

(3) The Concurrent List

(4) The Residuary Powers

Ans: (2)

 

59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:

(1) 4 years

(2) 5 years

(3) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

(4) Not fixed

Ans: (4)

 

60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?

(1) Maharashtra

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) West Bengal

Ans: (1)

 

------------------------------------

Pages: 1 2 3 4 5 6