Law Paper III – Jan 2017

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LAW Paper III – Jan 2017

 

1.    Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :

 List – I

 List – II

a. Kesavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala 

b. Indira Nehru Gandhi V. Raj Narain 

c. Minerva Mills V. Union of India 

d. I.R. Coelho V. State of Tamil Nadu

i. Basic structure doctrine new dimensions added 

ii. Basic structure doctrine created 

iii. Basic structure doctrine strengthened 

iv. Basic structure doctrine crystallised

Codes :

        a      b     c     d

(1)    ii      iii     iv     i

(2)    ii      iv     i      iii

(3)    iv      i      ii     iii

(4)    iii     iv     ii      i

Ans: (1)

 

2. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :

Assertion (A) : A State made law on any matter of Concurrent List prevails not-withstanding any repugnancy with an earlier law made by the Parliament.

Reason (R) : The Parliament can make a law, on any matter in the Concurrent List that prevails over any repugnant state law.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Ans: (1)

 

3. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :

Assertion (A) : The President of India has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India on a question of law or fact has arisen or likely to arise, which is of such nature and of such public importance.

Reason (R) : The Constitution of India makes it obligatory for the President to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court of India.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (3)

 

4. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :

List – I

List – II

a. Art 136

b. Art 134 

c. Art 131

d. Art 130  

i. Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court in regard to criminal matters. 

ii. Seat of Supreme Court 

iii. Special leave to appeal jurisdiction of the Supreme court over any court or administrative tribunal. 

iv. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Codes :

        a     b      c     d

(1)    iv     i      iii      ii

(2)     i     iii     iv      ii

(3)     ii    iv      i       iii

(4)     iii    i      iv      ii

Ans: (4)

 

5. Match List – I with List – II and give the correct answer by using codes given below the lists :

List – I

List – II

a. Art 221

b. Art 222

c. Art 223 

d. Art 224

i. Transfer of a Judge from one High Court to another

ii. Appointment of acting Chief Justice of a High Court 

iii. Appointment of additional and acting Judges of the High Court. 

iv. Salaries etc of High Court Judges

Codes :

        a      b      c      d

(1)    iv      i       ii      iii

(2)    ii       iv     i       iii

(3)    iii      iv     ii       i

(4)    iii      i       iv     ii

Ans: (1)

 

6. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :

Assertion (A) : An accused person is guaranteed under the Constitution of India the right to be informed of the nature and cause of his accusation.

Reason (R) : The accused person has to be produced before the nearest District Judge within twenty four hours.

Codes :

(1) (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Ans: (4)

 

7. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :

Assertion (A) : Subject to anything in this Constitution, Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.

Reason (R) : Above statement is Article 368(1) of the Indian Constitution.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(4) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.

Ans: (2)

 

8. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below :

Assertion (A) : No person to be eligible for election in, or to claim to be included in a special electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.

Reason (R) : Above statement is title of Article 325 of the Indian Constitution.

Codes :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct reason for (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

(3) (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

(4) (R) is wrong, but (A) is right.

Ans: (2)

 

9. Discretion, when applied to a court of justice, means sound discretion guided by law. It must be governed by rule, not by humour; it must not be arbitrary, vague and fanciful but legal and regular. This observation was made in

(1) Union of India V. Kuldeep Singh

(2) Reliance Airport Developers (P) Ltd. V. Airports Authority of India.

(3) Maneka Gandhi V. Union of India

(4) National Insurance Co. Ltd V. Keshav Bahadur

Ans: (2)

 

10. Under which of the following condition(s) a writ of mandamus can be granted ? Give correct answer by using the codes

a.   There must be a public duty.

b.   There must be a specific demand and refusal.

c.   There must be a clear right to enforce the duty.

d.   The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition.

Codes :

(1) All a, b, c and d are correct.

(2) Only a, b and c are correct.

(3) Only a and c are correct.

(4) Only a and b are correct.

Ans: (1)

 

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